Tuesday, August 16, 2022

Why Source Theories of Biblical Books Do Not Belong in the Academy

 In the latter half of the twentieth century, James Barr, influenced by various linguistic observations made earlier, heavily critiqued the diachronic methodologies employed by everyone from scholars to laity in the area of lexicography. 

One of the major arguments put forth is described as the etymological fallacy. I want to point out two aspects of this fallacy when it came to lexicography that is relevant for what I am going to say about source theories (whether we are talking about the original source theories of the eighteenth or nineteenth centuries or the various expressions of higher criticism that evolved into the twentieth centuries such as form criticism) that have now been assumed as a given within the academy.

The first etymological fallacy in lexicography has to do with the fact that what a word means in either an earlier period cannot be assumed to be the meaning, or have any relevance whatsoever in determining the meaning, in the current context one is analyzing. 

Likewise, in extension of this fallacy, which is mainly an illegitimate referential transference, one cannot assume the meaning, i.e., referents, in even a contemporary context without identical referents.

These observations are in accordance with the logic of language that create rules of  communication that, if violated, create the inability for language to function coherently. These rules are assumed by speakers and authors and the defense of them is simply in attempting to have a conversation using the reverse logic and to note the inability of such a practice to function as a successful form of communication.

The second observation is that a word, although possibly made up of two constituent parts (e.g., butterfly, understand, confidence, etc.) does not necessarily retain any meaning from either word. Although there are many words that may retain some meaning in terms of their individual referents (e.g., handwörterbuch, toothbrush, etc.), this can only be established by the referents given in the particular contexts in which the words are used.

Thus, the contextual referents decide the meaning in each of these cases of the etymological fallacy, and therefore, are not determined by either the history of usage, past or present, or the particular words used to make up the new word even when other words are used.

Here now is my claim. Source theories are nothing more than etymological fallacies applied to larger units of language than an individual word. They simply attempt to find meaning for the particular text under study by analyzing either the history of meaning of a source, the nature of the source in some other context, or the different sources that may be used to make up a new text.

Like the individual words used in new context, the new context must determine meaning and is not determined by the previous or foreign referent found in another text or cultural context. Ergo, all forms of higher criticism that assume these fallacies are illegitimate methodologies of inquiry that do not belong in academic study.

Now, this would be true even if the sources were actually in our material possession. In some cases, they are when we are referring to various ancient Near Eastern texts that are parallel to various Old Testament texts or various Second Temple texts that are parallel to New Testament texts. However, even in these cases, they can only function in comparison and contrast with what the authors of the new text might be doing with them. They can in no way be legitimately used as determinative when assessing the meaning/referents of the new text.

However, in the vast majority of cases where source theories are applied, whether JEDP and its variations and evolutions or Q theories in its various forms, or the theorized redactors in both the study of the Hebrew Bible and New Testament, are not material sources that we possess. They are conjectured and expanded through speculation. In other words, they are simply guesses based upon the fact that sources may be used in various texts.

Whatever the case, whether legitimate sources were ever used or not is completely irrelevant. The point is that one cannot make even sources we have as determinative in meaning, and thus, speculative sources that are simply assumed, along with their cultural referents that again are assumed from anthropological commonalities in cultures should not be a part of academic study of a text, much less referred to as being exegetical in nature.

Instead, the speculative sources are often flights of fancy and are even more worthless to even aiding in understanding a text exegetically simply because they provide no ability to even contrast or compare definitive referents, as they are simply made up and cannot function in that capacity.

The textual sources we do have can aid in study because they provide at least a comparison and contrast of definitive referents that everyone can see even without an imaginative scholar manufacturing them for his audience in much the same way a cult leader provides his members with the real context of the text that only he and those convinced by him can see with his Holy Spirit glasses.

The modern liberal scholar believes he is on greater ground than this cult leader because he is using natural sources to get his glasses (e.g., anthropology, archaeology, and psychology), but as argued here, he is simply in no better place to determine the meaning and referents of any given text than every other person who can analyze the text exegetically.

And that is what I wish to end with, Source theories are eisegetical not exegetical. They attempt to insert referents of meaning into the text rather than extrapolate meaning from the contextual referents provided by the texts as they exist. This is simply arguing that butterflies really are flies made of butter and that the boy down the street who has a boyfriend and says he’s gay really just means he’s cheerful. In the end, such assertions when corrected are dogma, not scholarship, and hence, have no place in the academy anymore (and should delegitimize any commentary that relies on them in order to determine referential meanings), and those who continue to use them in the above ways will prove themselves as religiously committed to a need to reinterpret the Bible for various reasons rather than those are who legitimately studying it.


Thursday, August 11, 2022

Giving Aid to the Wicked and the Wrath of God

 Jeff, one of my fellow elders, pointed out a really significant verse to me today that I had just read over and never noticed before. 2 Chronicles 19:2 states:

Jehoshaphat the king of Judah returned in safety to his house in Jerusalem. But Jehu the son of Hanani the seer went out to meet him and said to King Jehoshaphat, “Should you help the wicked and love those who hate the LORD? Because of this, wrath has gone out against you from the LORD. Nevertheless, some good is found in you, for you destroyed the Asheroth out of the land, and have set your heart to seek God.” (2 Chron 19:1-3)

The context of this passage is that Jehoshaphat had made an alliance with Ahab through marriage and by giving both financial and physical aid to Ahab to defend his kingdom in battle. Jehu, a prophet, goes out the text says and opposes him (lit. against/to his face). Now, Hebrew is a very verbal language. The verbs are usually fronted. In this sentence, however, the verb appears last in an effort to highlight the words "should, to the wicked to give aid and to those who hate YHWH, you love? In other words, the highlight is on the fact that the recipient of Jehoshaphat's help and love is the wicked and those who reject YHWH. The text states that the object of the righteous king's aid and love should not be anyone who is wicked or rejects YHWH.

This passage is interesting as it not only asks the rhetorical question whether someone who is righteous should help the wicked and love those who hate the Lord, but it also conveys that such is not a practice that is benign but rather brings about the wrath of God. What saves Jehoshaphat from God's wrath in the battle in which Ahab is killed is the fact that he destroyed the cult images in Jerusalem. 

However, Jehoshaphat actually does this again with Ahaziah who takes the throne after Ahab is killed.

 After this Jehoshaphat king of Judah joined with Ahaziah king of Israel, who acted wickedly. He joined him in building ships to go to Tarshish, and they built the ships in Ezion-geber. Then Eliezer the son of Dodavahu of Mareshah prophesied against Jehoshaphat, saying, “Because you have joined with Ahaziah, the LORD will destroy what you have made.” And the ships were wrecked and were not able to go to Tarshish. (2 Chron 20:35–37)

The Chronicler then records the death of Jehoshaphat as a righteous king but then continues to talk about what happens to his sons. They are all killed by Jehoram his eldest who not only takes the throne but then installs all of the wicked practices in Jerusalem that Ahab had advocated in northern Israel. 

Authors of narrative often select their information and place things together because they want the reader to connect what came before as logically producing the events that come after. In this case, I don't think it is a stretch to suggest that the Chronicler wants the reader to understand that the wrath of God is evident in that He gives Jehoshaphat's family over to the consequences of giving aid to the wicked and loving those who hate the Lord (2 Chron 21).

So even though Jehoshaphat was a righteous king in some respects, the wickedness of giving help and love to the wicked not only caused him to lose the battle he fought with Ahab but destroyed both his family after him (saving only one son because God did not want to wipe out David's line) and the spiritual faithfulness of Judah to God.

The implications of this passage are quite profound and warrant the question, "Should Christians give aid to the wicked and love those who hate the Lord? 

Now, one could argue that Ahab is an apostate and should represent the so-called brethren in the church who should be excommunicated, given no aid or physical care. However, the statement made by the prophet seems to be generic. Is it right to help a wicked person when he is under the judgment of God and working against God in his ideas and practices? Is it right to love those who hate God?

Another verse Jeff mentioned was 139:21-22, "Do I not hate those who hate You, O YHWH; and do I not loathe those who rise up against You? With absolute hatred I hate them. I count them as my enemies."

Does not the New Testament also state that being a friend to the world is to make an enemy of God? James 4:4 implies that finding one's identity with the world, seeking to be accepted by them in one's status, as no doubt was the goal of Jehoshaphat with Ahab and Ahaziah, is to betray God. It is to join in their hateful activity against God. 

Instead, Jehoshaphat's place was to call the kings of the north out of their idolatry and to repent of their rebellion against God but he was the weaker king so he joined with them, and even though he was generally a righteous king for the time, the wrath of God went out against him as an enemy, caused him to lose a battle, led to the murder of his sons, and ultimately destroyed all of the good work he had done in his lifetime of ministry to God's people in removing these major idols from among them.

Ahab and Ahaziah, although they were Jehoshaphat's physical neighbors, they were not a neighbor in the sense of covenant members any longer. Hence, they should not have been supported by Jehoshaphat in any way, shape, or form. Those who have set their lives against the Lord must be, in love for God and His people, called to repentance, not given comfort and support in their rebellion.

Let us not support the ministries of the devil by giving aid to the wicked but rather call them out of their hatred toward God; and whatever we do, let us not share in their judgment by giving ourselves a share in the wrath reserved for their rebellion by contributing in some way, financially or otherwise, to it.